If Sarai’s father really was Terah, why does the Bible call Sarai his daughter-in-law, indicating that they weren’t related?
Genesis 11:31 And Terah took Abram his son, and Lot the son of Haran his son’s son, and Sarai his daughter in law, his son Abram’s wife; and they went forth with them from Ur of the Chaldees, to go into the land of Canaan; and they came unto Haran, and dwelt there.
Genesis 20:12 And yet indeed she is my sister; she is the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother; and she became my wife.
I can only assume that when she married he could no longer treat her as a daughter but as Abraham’s wife. She belonged to Abraham and he would have had to go through him for anything he might want of her. Hence, she was no longer a daughter but a daughter-in-law. It could be stated that she went from Terah’s household into Abraham’s household and therefore Terah had a different relationship with her.
I find nothing impractical or unbiblical with this interpretation.
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